How did Shakespeare’s life and time period in which he lived influence the play, and how were these “taboo” topics viewed at that time? This is not the first time that Shakespeare created a female character that disguised herself as a man. Two female characters in his work Merchant of Venice also passed themselves off as the other sex. Is there some significance to this—is it because it was a safe/subtle way to present the possibility of same sex attraction in his writing or was it to demonstrate what women were capable of but not able to since they had less rights than men? What are your thoughts? Can you back it up?
Wednesday, March 23, 2011
Sunday, February 6, 2011
First Two Assignments
Assignment #1: Visualize Shakespeare's Words (due date: Friday, February 4th)
Assignment #2: Rewriting Shakespeare's Epitaph Using Iambic Pentameter
Assignment #3: Blog #1: Argue one of the four points.
Assignment #2: Rewriting Shakespeare's Epitaph Using Iambic Pentameter
Assignment #3: Blog #1: Argue one of the four points.
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